weighted score
Looking at examples of weighted scores
For example
The travaillor shows
1430 x 2
680 x 5
650 x 2
-100 x 2
If you calculate the percentages of those scores you get 1430 18%, 680 46% 650 18% and -100 18%
The estimate in the example is tha 1430 occures 30%,, 680 40%, 650 20% and -100 10%
What really puzzles me is why has the probability of bidding and making a slam been increased by that much, a slam is often hard to find and going 1 down in a slam is quite a possibility. For me the probability of bidding four making 6 is much more likely. In the example two pairs bid slam making and 2 pairs bid slam going 1 down
Looking at that example and all the examples are similar. It seem to be just the opinion of the director at the time, it is not properly weighted. So if I get a question to calculating a weighted score what do I base my weighting on
,
Thanks Marion
Latest Posts on this Thread
- NICK WHITTEN13 Nov 2020 at 08:17AM
Hi MarionYes I understand it IS just the directors opinion
There will nearly always be a bit of guesswork involved in which case the benefit of any doubt goes to the non-offending side
I see your exam is this weekend
Best of luckIf you pass with flying colours (which would not surprise me) I hope you keep on asking questions
Your recent contributions have certainly kept this forum alivecheers
Nick
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